CMAT 2022 Solved Question Paper

Time value of money Rs 4,000 at the end of 3 years $=4,000{\left(1+\frac{15}{100}\right)}^3=$ Rs $6083.5$
Value of first installment at the end of 3 years $=1500{\left(1+\frac{15}{100}\right)}^2=$ Rs $1983.75$
Value of second installment at the end of 3 years $=1500\left(1+\frac{15}{100}\right)=$ Rs $1725$
Value of third installment $=1500$
Let us assume he has to pay Rs. $\mathrm{x}$ to clear all his dues
$1983.75+1725+1500+\mathrm{x}=6083.5$
$\mathrm{x}=\mathrm{Rs}874.75$
Answer is option D.