Let A=\left(\begin{array}{cc}1 & 2 \ 3 & 4)\end{array} and B=\left(\begin{array}{cc}a & 0 \ 0 & b)\end{array}, a, b \in N. Then [AIEEE 2006]

Correct Answer is : there exist infinitely many B′ s such that AB=BA

there cannot exist any B such that A B=B A

there exist more then one but finite number of B^{'} s such that A B=B A

there exists exactly one B such that A B=B A

there exist infinitely many B^{'} s such that A B=B A

AIEEE 2006 Solved Paper

Section: Mathematics

Question : 133 of 143

Marks: +1, -0

Let A=(

1	2
3	4

) and B=(

a	0
0	b

),a,b∈N. Then

[AIEEE 2006]

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