UPSEE Solved Model Paper 4

© examsiri.com
Question : 144 of 150
 
Marks: +1, -0
If A =
1
Ï€
[
sin−1(πx)tan−1(
Ï€
x
)
sin−1(
Ï€
x
)
tan−1(πx)
]
,
B =
1
Ï€
[
−cos−1(πx)tan−1(
Ï€
x
)
sin−1(
Ï€
x
)
−tan−1(πx)
]
then
Go to Question: