© examsiri.com
Question : 63 of 160
Marks:
+1,
-0
Solution:
Given,
f(x)=√cos−1√1−x2Let
x=sin‌θ.
Then,
√1−x2=√1−sin‌2θ⇒‌‌√cos2θ=|cos‌θ|Since,
θ∈[0,‌], so
cos‌θ≥0∴‌‌√1−x2=cos‌θSo,
f(x)=√cos−1(cos‌θ)⇒‌‌√θ‌=√sin‌−1(x)f′(x)‌=‌√sin‌−1(x)‌⇒‌‌‌⋅‌‌‌‌f′(x)=‌⋅‌‌‌‌=‌⋅‌‌⇒‌‌‌⋅‌⇒‌=√‌‌∴‌‌f′(x)=√‌
© examsiri.com
Go to Question: