KEAM 2013 Math Paper

© examsiri.com

Question : 96 of 120

Marks: +1, -0

If g(x) is the inverse of f(x) and f′(x)=

1

1+x3

, then g′(x) is equal to

g(x)
1+g(x)
1+(g(x))3
1
1+(g(x))3
0

Go to Question:

Prev Question

Next Question