KCET 2016 Math Solved Paper

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Question : 10 of 60
 
Marks: +1, -0
If
A=
1
Ï€
[
sin−1(πx)tan−1(
x
Ï€
)
sin−1(
x
Ï€
)
cot−1(πx)
]
,
B=
1
Ï€
[
−cos−1(πx)tan−1(
x
Ï€
)
sin−1(
x
Ï€
)
−tan−1(πx)
]
then A - B is equal to
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