Definite Integrals Part 3

Section: Mathematics

© examsiri.com

Question : 96 of 115

Marks: +1, -0

Let f(x)=

x

(1+xn)

1

n

, ‌x∈ℝ−{−1},n∈ℕ,n>2. If fn(x)=n (fofof..... upto n times) (x), then

lim

n→∞

‌

1

∫

0

xn−2(fn(x))‌dx is equal to _______.

[6-Apr-2023 shift 2]

Your Answer:

Go to Question:

Prev Question

Next Question