Let ∆ \in\{∧, ∨, \Rightarrow, \Leftrightarrow\} be such that (p ∧ q) ∆((p ∨ q) \Rightarrow q) is a tautology. Then ∆ is equal to : [29-Jun-2022-Shift-1]

JEE Main 29 June 2022 Shift 1 Solved Paper

Section: Mathematics

Question : 9 of 90

Marks: +1, -0

Let ∆∈{∧,∨,⇒,⇔} be such that (p∧q)∆((p∨q)⇒q) is a tautology. Then ∆ is equal to :

[29-Jun-2022-Shift-1]

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