JEE Main 2016 Question Paper

Section: Mathematics

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Question : 49 of 90

Marks: +1, -0

Consider f(x)=tan−1(√

1+sin‌x

1−sin‌x

),x∊(0,

π

2

).A normal to y=f(x) at x=

π

6

also passes through the point:

[Main 2016]

(0.
2π
3
)
(
π
6
,0)
(
π
4
,0)
(0,0)

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