If f_n(x)=\log \log \log . . . \log x (log is repeated n-times), then \int (x f_1(x) f_2(x) . . . f_n(x)) ^{-1} \dx is equal to

EAMCET Engineering 2010 Solved Paper

Section: Mathematics

Question : 44 of 160

Marks: +1, -0

If fn(x)=log‌log‌log...log‌x (log is repeated n-times), then
∫(xf1(x)f2(x)...fn(x))−1‌dx is equal to

Go to Question:

Prev Question

Next Question